‘Kant thinks that to be morally good, an action must not merely conform with the moral law, but must be motivated by the moral law. What does he mean? Why does he think that? Is he right?’
Explain what Kant means in this passage. How does the distinction between “conforming with the moral law” and “acting for the sake of the moral law” connect with Kant’s broader moral theory? Do you think Kant is right or should conformity with the moral law be sufficient for moral goodness?